SOCIAL STUDIES/ SOCIAL SCIENCE REVIEWER
(Thank you to the original creator)
1. Hecateus of Miletus was a Greek geographer and historian. His best-known work is his World map, which was based on a map that had been designed by Anaximander. How did he design the map representing the earth?
A. As a disc surrounded by ocean
B. visualized the earth as a rectangular form supported by compressed air.
C. a spherical earth with a central fire at its core
D. an irregular shape with oceans surrounding only Asia and Africa
Answer: A
Hecatæus's map describes the earth as a circular plate with an encircling Ocean and Greece in the centre of the world. This was a very popular contemporary Greek worldview, derived originally from the Homeric poems. Also, similar to many other early maps in antiquity his map has no scale. As units of measurements, this map used "days of sailing" on the sea and "days of marching" on dry land
Anaximenes of Miletus (6th century BC), who studied under Anaximander, rejected the views of his teacher regarding the shape of the earth and instead, he visualized the earth as a rectangular form supported by compressed air
Pythagoras of Samos (c. 560–480 BC) speculated about the notion of a spherical earth with a central fire at its core. He is sometimes incorrectly credited with the introduction of a model that divides a spherical earth into five zones: one hot, two temperate, and two cold—northern and southern. This idea, known as the zonal theory of climate, is more likely to have originated at the time of Aristotle
Herodotus rejected the prevailing view of most 5th century BC maps that the earth is a circular plate surrounded by Ocean. In his work he describes the earth as an irregular shape with oceans surrounding only Asia and Africa. He introduces names such as the Atlantic Sea and the Erythrean Sea. He also divided the world into three continents: Europe, Asia, and Africa
2. A type of map that are designed to show governmental boundaries of countries, states, and counties, the location of major cities, and they usually include significant bodies of water.
A. Topographic map
B. Political Map
C. Physical Map
D. Economic Map
Answer: B
Political maps are designed to show governmental boundaries of countries, states, and counties, the location of major cities, and they usually include significant bodies of water.
3. Map that focuses on the geography of the area and will often have shaded relief to show the mountains and valleys.
A. Topographic map
B. Political Map
C. Physical Map
D. Economic Map
Answer: C
A physical map is one that shows the physical landscape features of a place. They generally show things like mountains, rivers and lakes and water is always shown with blue. Mountains and elevation changes are usually shown with different colors and shades to show relief. Normally on physical maps green shows lower elevations while browns show high elevations.
4. A type of map characterized by large-scale detail and quantitative representation of relief, usually using contour lines, but historically using a variety of methods
A. Topographic map
B. Political Map
C. Physical Map
D. Economic Map
Answer: A
A topographic map is similar to a physical map in that it shows different physical landscape features. They are different however because they use contour lines instead of colors to show changes in the landscape. Contour lines on topographic maps are normally spaced at regular intervals to show elevation changes (e.g. each line represents a 100 foot (30 m) elevation change) and when lines are close together the terrain is steep.
A climate map shows information about the climate of an area. They can show things like the specific climatic zones of an area based on the temperature, the amount of snow an area receives or average number of cloudy days. These maps normally use colors to show different climatic areas.
An economic or resource map shows the specific type of economic activity or natural resources present in an area through the use of different symbols or colors depending on what is being shown on the map.
A road map is one of the most widely used map types. These maps show major and minor highways and roads (depending on detail) as well as things like airports, city locations and points of interest like parks, campgrounds and monuments. Major highways on a road map are generally red and larger than other roads, while minor roads are a lighter color and a narrower line.
Note: Not all roadmaps are maps pertaining to a road. It also means a plan.
Example: Road map for peace, to resolve the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
A thematic map is a map that emphasizes a particular theme or special topic such as the average distribution of rainfall in an area. They are different from general reference maps because they do not just show natural features like rivers, cities, political subdivisions and highways
5. An act prohibiting discrimination against any individual in employment on account of age and providing penalties therefore” prohibits employers from withholding promotion or deny training opportunities, compensation and privileges from employees on the basis of age.
A. RA 10911
B. RA 10932
C. RA 10913
D. RA 10931
Answer: A
Republic Act 10911 or “An act prohibiting discrimination against any individual in employment on account of age and providing penalties therefore” prohibits employers from withholding promotion or deny training opportunities, compensation and privileges from employees on the basis of age.
Recruitment and employment agencies are also prohibited from refusing to help individuals regardless of age from seeking employment and labor organizations are prohibited to refuse employees of membership because of their age.
Republic Act 10913 or “An act defining and penalizing distracted driving” will mean that any person who is using their phones in non-emergency cases and/or needs it for work will be penalized with a fine of P5,000 for first offense, P10,000 for second offense, and P15,000 and suspension of license for three months for the third offense.
Republic Act No. 10932, otherwise known as the Anti-Hospital Deposit Law provides that “in emergency or serious cases, it shall be unlawful for any hospital or medical clinic to request, solicit, demand or accept any deposit or any other form of advance payment as prerequisite for administering basic emergency care, for confinement or medical treatment, or to refuse to administer medical treatment and support to any patient.
Republic Act 10931 also known as the “Universal Access to Quality Tertiary Education Act”
6. It is the variable you have control over, what you can choose and manipulate.
A. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
C. Moderator Variable
D. Intervening Variable
Answer: A
An independent variable is the variable you have control over, what you can choose and manipulate. It is usually what you think will affect the dependent variable. In some cases, you may not be able to manipulate the independent variable. It may be something that is already there and is fixed, something you would like to evaluate with respect to how it affects something else, the dependent variable like color, kind, time.
Example: You are interested in how stress affects heart rate in humans. Your independent variable would be the stress and the dependent variable would be the heart rate. You can directly manipulate stress levels in your human subjects and measure how those stress levels change heart rate.
7. It is the variable that you measure in the experiment and what is affected during the experiment.
A. Intervening Variable
B. Moderator Variable
C. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
Answer: D
A dependent variable is what you measure in the experiment and what is affected during the experiment. The dependent variable responds to the independent variable. It is called dependent because it "depends" on the independent variable.
(See example in #6)
8. It is sometimes called a mediating variable, is a hypothetical variable used to explain causal links between other variables. Itcannot be observed in an experiment (that's why they are hypothetical).
A. Intervening Variable
B. Control Variable
C. Moderator Variable
D. Independent Variable
Answer: A
An intervening variable (sometimes called a mediating variable) is a hypothetical variable used to explain causal links between other variables. Intervening variables cannot be observed in an experiment (that's why they are hypothetical)
An intervening variable is something that impacts the relationship between an independent and a dependent variable. Usually, the intervening variable is caused by the independent variable, and is itself a cause of the dependent variable
9. It is one that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables, and explains the relationship between the two other variables.
A. Intervening Variable
B. Moderator Variable
C. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
Answer B
A moderator variable is one that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables, and a mediator variable is one that explains the relationship between the two other variables.
Students sometimes confuse moderating variables with mediator variables. Mediator variables are variables that explain the correlation between two variables, while moderating variables affect the relationship between two variables. For example, throughout the population, there is a correlation between weight and income. However, weight also increases with age, and income also typically increases with age. Age is the mediating variable that explains the correlation between weight and income level.
A control variable is a variable that is held constant in a research analysis.
10. It is a research method that relies on a single case rather than a population or sample. When researchers focus on a single case, they can make detailed observations over a long period of time, something that cannot be done with large samples without costing a lot of money.
A. Longitudinal Method
B. Case Study Method
C. Cohort Study Method
D. Participatory Research
Answer: B
A case study is a research method that relies on a single case rather than a population or sample. When researchers focus on a single case, they can make detailed observations over a long period of time, something that cannot be done with large samples without costing a lot of money.
Researcher Robert K. Yin defines the case study research method as an empirical inquiry that investigates a contemporary phenomenon within its real-life context; when the boundaries between phenomenon and context are not clearly evident; and in which multiple sources of evidence are used (Yin, 1984, p. 23)
11. It is an observational research method in which data is gathered for the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time.
A. Cross-sectional Method
B. Case Study
C. Longitudinal Method
D. Cross-cultural Method
Answer: C
A longitudinal study is an observational research method in which data is gathered for the same subjects repeatedly over a period of time. Longitudinal research projects can extend over years or even decades. In a longitudinal cohort study, the same individuals are observed over the study period. In longitudinal trend study, different samples from the population are observed over the study period.
12. This research is used to examine one variable in different groups that are similar in all other characteristics.
A. Cross-sectional Method
B. Case Study
C. Longitudinal Method
D. Cross-cultural Method
Answer: A
Cross-sectional research involves using different groups of people who differ in the variable of interest but share other characteristics, such as socioeconomic status, educational background, and ethnicity.
13. In this research methodology, participants/constitutents are equal partners with the researcher (as in feminist research).
A. Naturalistic Observation Method
B. Sample Survey Method
C. Cohort Study Method
D. Participatory Action Research
Answer: D
Participatory action research (PAR) is an approach to research in communities that emphasizes participation and action. It seeks to understand the world by trying to change it, collaboratively and following reflection. PAR emphasizes collective inquiry and experimentation grounded in experience and social history.
Here, participants work with a facilitator to identify a community problem, develop research methodology, collect data, and analyze findings.
14. In culture, which of the following is not an example of norms?
A. Etiquette
B. Superstitions
C. Facial Expressions
D. Speech
Answer : B
Superstitions fall under the “Beliefs” element of culture.
Norms are ways of behaving that are considered normal in a particular society
15. It refers to social norms that are widely observed and are considered to have greater moral significance than others.
A. Mores
B. Folkways
C. Laws
D. traditions
Answer: A
Mores is a term introduced into English by William Graham Sumner (1840–1910), an early U.S. sociologist, to refer to social norms that are widely observed and are considered to have greater moral significance than others. Mores include an aversion for societal taboos, such as incest. The mores of a society usually predicate legislation prohibiting their taboos. Often, countries will employ specialized vice squads or vice police engaged in suppressing specific crimes offending the societal mores.
Folkways, in sociology, are norms for routine or casual interaction. This includes ideas about appropriate greetings and proper dress in different situations.
In short, mores "distinguish the difference between right and wrong, while folkways draw a line between right and rude".
16. Culture is continually changing. It is never permanent. Whatever is practiced today may no longer be applicable in the future. What characteristic of culture is being implied here?
A. Culture is transmitted from generation to generation
B. Culture is adaptive and maladaptive
C. Culture is dynamic
D. Culture is cumulative
Answer: C
Culture is dynamic and thus complex. Culture is fluid rather than static, which means that culture changes all the time, every day, in subtle and tangible ways. Because humans communicate and express their cultural systems in a variety of ways, it can be hard to pinpoint exactly what cultural dynamics are at play.
17. Christianity originated and observed. Later it spread to the different parts of the world like the Philippines. This speaks of_____.
A. Cultural Diffusion
B. Cultural assimilation
C. Cultural Relativism
D. Cultural Innovation
Answer: A
Cultural diffusion is the spread of cultural beliefs and social activities from one group to another. The mixing of world cultures through different ethnicities, religions and nationalities has increased with advanced communication, transportation and technology
18. Why do we say that culture is normative?
A. It is manifested in the manner and ways and individual thinks’
B. It provides a set of rules to be followed by the people
C. It is about the people’s way of doing things
D. It enables man to develop a capacity to utilize for the betterment of his/her present condition
Answer : B
It is normative because it sets a universally accepted principles that members of the society need to follow.
19. It is a way of life and set of attitudes opposed to or at variance with the prevailing social norm.
A. Subculture
B. Idioculture
C. Counterculture
D. Cultural heritage
Answer: C
A counterculture (also written counter-culture) is a subculture whose values and norms of behavior differ substantially from those of mainstream society, often in opposition to mainstream cultural mores
Idioculture is defined as “a system of knowledge, beliefs, behaviors, and customs shared by members of an interacting group to which members can refer and employ as the basis of further interaction”
20. It is an act or a series of acts involving any unwelcome sexual advance, request or demand for a sexual favor, or other verbal or physical behavior of a sexual nature, committed by a government employee or official in a work-related, training- or education- related environment
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Qualified Seduction
D. Sexual consent
Answer: B
R.A. 7877, an “Act Declaring Sexual Harassment Unlawful in the Employment, Education or Training Environment, and for other purposes” was approved on February 14, 1995 and became effective on March 5, 1995, fifteen (15) days after its publication in the Malaya and Times Journal on February 18, 1995. It is known as “The Anti-Sexual Harassment Act of 1995.”
R. A. 7877 - Sec. 3. Work, Education or Training-related Sexual Harassment Defined. – Work, education
or training-related sexual harassment is committed by an employee, manager, supervisor, agent
of the employer, teacher, instructor, professor, coach, trainor, or any other person who, having
authority, influence or moral ascendancy over another in a work or training or education
environment, demands, requests or otherwise requires any sexual favor from the other, regardless
of whether the demand, request or requirement for submission is accepted by the object of said
Act.
(a) In a work-related or employment environment, sexual harassment is committed
when:
(1) The sexual favor is made as a condition in the hiring or in the employment, reemployment
or continued employment of said individual, or in granting said individual favorable
compensation, terms, conditions, promotions, or privileges; or the refusal to grant the sexual
favor results in limiting, segregating or classifying the employee which in a way would
discriminate, deprive or diminish employment opportunities or otherwise adversely affect said
employee;
(2) The above acts would impair the employee’s rights or privileges under existing
labor laws; or
(3) The above acts would result in an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment
for the employee.
(b) In an education or training environment, sexual harassment is committed:
(1) Against one who is under the care, custody or supervision of the offender;
(2) Against one whose education, training, apprenticeship or tutorship is entrusted to
the offender;
(3) When the sexual favor is made a condition to the giving of a passing grade, or the
granting of honors and scholarships, or the payment of a stipend, allowance or other benefits,
privileges, or considerations; or
(4) When the sexual advances result in an intimidating, hostile or offensive
environment for the student, trainee or apprentice.
Any person who directs or induces another to commit any act of sexual harassment
as herein defined, or who cooperates in the commission thereof by another without which it
would not have been committed, shall also be held liable under this Act.
According to Section 32, Article XIII, of the implementing rules and regulations of the Child Abuse Law (RA. 7610), lascivious conduct is defined as "the intentional touching, either directly or through clothing, of the genitalia, anus, groin, breast, inner thigh, or buttocks, or the introduction of any object into the genitalia, anus or mouth, of any person, whether of the same or opposite sex, with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, bestiality, masturbation, lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of a person."
According to the Revised Penal Code, qualified seduction under Article 337 is: “The seduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age, committed by any person in public authority, priest, home-servant, domestic, guardian, teacher, or any person who, in any capacity, shall be entrusted with the education or custody of the woman seduced.”
21. In world systems theory, these are those that are less developed countries. These countries usually receive a disproportionately small share of global wealth.
A. Core Countries
B. Periphery Countries
C. Semi-periphery countries
Answer B
In world systems theory, the periphery countries (sometimes referred to as just the periphery) are those that are less developed than the semi-periphery and core countries. These countries usually receive a disproportionately small share of global wealth. They have weak state institutions and are dependent on – according to some, exploited by – more developed countries. These countries are usually behind because of obstacles such as lack of technology, unstable government, and poor education and health systems. In some instances, the exploitation of periphery countries' agriculture, cheap labor, and natural resources aid core countries in remaining dominant. This is best described by dependency theory, which is one theory on how globalization can affect the world and the countries in it. It is, however, possible for periphery countries to rise out of their status and move into semi-periphery or core status. This can be done by doing things such as industrializing, stabilizing the government and political climate, etc.
The semi-periphery countries (sometimes referred to as just the semi-periphery) are the industrializing, mostly capitalist countries which are positioned between the periphery and core countries.
The core countries are the industrialized capitalist countries on which periphery countries and semi-periphery countries depend. Core countries control and benefit from the global market. They are usually recognized as wealthy nations with a wide variety of resources and are in a favorable location compared to other states. They have strong state institutions, a powerful military and powerful global political alliances.
22. Which of the following is not a way of establishing a de facto government?
A. Usurpation
B. Insurrection
C. Invasion
D. officially sanctioned
Answer: D
De facto means a state of affairs that is true in fact, but that is not officially sanctioned. In contrast, de jure means a state of affairs that is in accordance with law (i.e. that is officially sanctioned).
23. What were the branches of the government established in the Philippines during the Spanish Occupation?
A. Executive, Legislative and Judicial
B. Executive and Judicial
C. Executive and Legislative
D. Legislative and Judicial
Answer: B
The laws for the Philippines were made in Spain. Judicial powers were exercised by the Audencia.
24. It became the basis for the establishment of the civil government in the Philippines on July 4, 1901 with Taft as the first civil governor.
A. Spooner Amendment
B. Philippine Organic act
C. Philippine Autonomy Act
D. Hare-Haws Cutting Act
Spooner Amendment, congressional amendment to the Army Appropriations Act of 1901 that called for the end of the U.S. military government in the Philippines. By the terms of the Treaty of Paris (December 1898), sovereignty over the Philippine Islands had passed from Spain to the United States.
Filipinos fought the imposition of American rule, and it was believed in the United States that their resistance was due to the harshness of military government. The Spooner Amendment authorized Pres. William McKinley to supplant military rule with civilian government, which was inaugurated in July 1901. Filipino guerrillas, however, continued hostilities for a number of years.
25. It provided for the creation of an elected Philippine Assembly (the lower house) after certain conditions are met.
A. Spooner Amendment
B. Philippine Organic act
C. Philippine Autonomy Act
D. Hare-Haws Cutting Act
Answer:B
The Philippine Assembly (sometimes called the Philippine National Assembly) was the lower house of the Philippines from 1907 to 1916. Along with an upper house (the appointed Philippine Commission), it formed the bicameral Philippine Legislature during part of the American Colonial Period.
The Assembly was created by the 1902 Philippine Organic Act of the United States Congress, which established the Insular Government of the Philippines. In 1916, the Jones Act replaced the Philippine Organic Act and the Assembly became the current House of Representatives of the Philippines.
The Philippine Organic Act (c. 1369, 32 Stat. 691) was a basic law for the Insular Government that was enacted by the United States Congress on July 1, 1902. It is also known as the Philippine Bill of 1902 and the Cooper Act, after its author Henry A. Cooper.
The Jones Law (also known as the Jones Act, the Philippine Autonomy Act, and the Act of Congress of August 29, 1916) was an Organic Act passed by the United States Congress. The law replaced the Philippine Organic Act of 1902 and acted as a constitution of the Philippines from its enactment until 1934, when the Tydings–McDuffie Act was passed (which in turn led eventually to the Commonwealth of the Philippines and to independence from the United States). The Jones Law created the first fully elected Philippine legislature.
Hare–Hawes–Cutting Act, (1933), the first law setting a specific date for Philippine independence from the United States. It was passed by Congress as a result of pressure from two sources: American farmers, who, during the Great Depression, feared competition from Filipino sugar and coconut oils; and Filipino leaders, who were eager to run their own government.
The bill was passed by the Senate in December 1932 but was vetoed by Pres. Herbert Hoover. To Hoover’s surprise, Congress promptly overrode his veto, and the bill became law on Jan. 17, 1933. The act, however, required approval by the Philippine Senate, and this was not forthcoming. Filipino political leader Manuel Quezon led a campaign against the bill because of provisions in it that allowed the indefinite retention of U.S. military bases in the islands. The Tydings–McDuffie Act, substantially similar to the rejected measure but incorporating minor changes, was accepted by the Philippine Senate in 1934.
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26. Which of the following is impeachable?
A. A President who accepts gifts offered to him by reason of his office
B. A Senator who has committed a crime involving graft and corruption
C. A President who has committed moral defamation
D. An Ombudsman for not supporting the president in his cause
Answer : A. Bribery is an impeachable offense.
The Revised Penal Code defines bribery in two forms:
Direct bribery is "committed by any public officer who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in connection with the performance of this official duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received by such officer, personally or through the mediation of another."
Indirect bribery is "committed by a public officer when he accept gifts offered to him by reason of his office."
Impeachment in the Philippines is an expressed power of the Congress of the Philippines to formally charge a serving government official with an impeachable offense. After being impeached by the House of Representatives, the official is then tried in the Senate. If convicted, the official is either removed from office or censured.
Impeachment followed by conviction is often the only way to forcibly remove a sitting official. While "impeachment" is often used to refer to the entire process of removing an official from office, it only formally refers to the indictment stage in the House of Representatives, not the trial stage in the Senate. Under the current Constitution, an official can be impeached if one third of the House of Representatives votes in favor. Since it takes only a simple majority to set the agenda or to adjourn the House, it can be difficult for a minority of one third to bring a vote and impeach an official.
Impeachable offenses. The Constitution limits the offenses to the following: culpable violation of the Constitution, treason, bribery, graft and corruption, other high crimes, or betrayal of public trust. In the 1935 and 1973 constitution, betrayal of public trust was not an impeachable offense.
Impeachable officials
President of the Philippines.
Vice President of the Philippines.
Members of the Supreme Court of the Philippines.
Members of the Constitutional Commissions: Commission on Elections. Civil Service Commission. Commission on Audit.
Ombudsman.
27. Who among the following officials were successfully convicted through impeachment?
A. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
B. Joseph Estrada
C. Corazon Aquino
D. Renato Corona
Answer: D
A, B and C were all filed an impeachment complaints but it all failed except for SC Chief Justice Renato Corona. In December 2011, 188 of the 285 members of the House of Representatives voted to transmit the 56-page Articles of Impeachment against Supreme Court Chief Justice Renato Corona.
President Corazon Aquino was accused by lawmakers in 1988 of graft and violating the Constitution. The charges were rejected the following month due to lack of evidence.
President Joseph Estrada was accused of bribery, graft and corruption, betrayal of public trust, and culpable violation of the Constitution during the impeachment of 2000, to determine the accusations, the House of Representatives choose 11 members to act as prosecutors with the Senate as the impeachment court and the senators as judges. Trial aborted on January 17, 2001; declared as resigned on January 20, 2001
President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo was accused in 2005, 2006, 2007 and 2008 impeachment complaints for different imputations, specially attempting lying, cheating and stealing during 2004 presidential election against opposition candidate Fernando Poe, Jr.
28. How can a member of the Congress, like a Senator, be removed?
Answer: Each house has the power to expel its own members
1987 Const. Art. VI, Section 16. (3) Each House may determine the rules of its proceedings, punish its Members for disorderly behavior, and, with the concurrence of two-thirds of all its Members, suspend or expel a Member. A penalty of suspension, when imposed, shall not exceed sixty days.
29. It is a law that applies to crimes that happened before the law was passed. An example is a law passed in 1994 that applies to acts that occurred in 1989.
A. Law against Double Jeopardy
B. Ex Post Facto Law
C. Bill of attainder
Answer: B
Ex post facto laws retroactively change the rules of evidence in a criminal case, retroactively alter the definition of a crime, retroactively increase the punishment for a criminal act, or punish conduct that was legal when committed.
Double jeopardy is a procedural defence that prevents an accused person from being tried again on the same (or similar) charges and on the same facts, following a valid acquittal or conviction.
A bill of attainder (also known as an act of attainder or writ of attainder or bill of pains and penalties) is an act of a legislature declaring a person or group of persons guilty of some crime and punishing them, often without a trial.
1987 Const., Art. III, Section 22. No ex post facto law or bill of attainder shall be enacted.
30. It is the sole judge of all contests relating to the election, returns, and qualifications in the Senate and House of Representatives.
A. Supreme Court
B. COMELEC
C. Electoral Tribunal
D. The President
Answer: C
Art. VI Section 17. The Senate and the House of Representatives shall each have an Electoral Tribunal which shall be the sole judge of all contests relating to the election, returns, and qualifications of their respective Members. Each Electoral Tribunal shall be composed of nine Members, three of whom shall be Justices of the Supreme Court to be designated by the Chief Justice, and the remaining six shall be Members of the Senate or the House of Representatives, as the case may be, who shall be chosen on the basis of proportional representation from the political parties and the parties or organizations registered under the party-list system represented therein. The senior Justice in the Electoral Tribunal shall be its Chairman.
31. Who has the sole power to declare a state of war?
A. President
B. Congress
C. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
D. Senate
Answer: B
Art. VI, Section 23. (1) The Congress, by a vote of two-thirds of both Houses in joint session assembled, voting separately, shall have the sole power to declare the existence of a state of war.
32. President A was removed from office through impeachment and was succeeded by Vice President B to serve for the remaining 3 years. Will President B be eligible for re-election?
A. No. The Constitution prohibits re-election of President.
B. No. The President is allowed to serve only one term.
C. Yes. Because he still has to serve the remaining 3 years.
D. Yes, but subject to approval by the Congress.
Answer: C. It’s true that no president is qualified for re-election. However there is an exception provided by the Constitution. If the remaining years he has to serve is more than 4 years then he won’t be eligible for a re-election.
Article VII, Section 4. The President and the Vice-President shall be elected by direct vote of the people for a term of six years which shall begin at noon on the thirtieth day of June next following the day of the election and shall end at noon of the same date, six years thereafter. The President shall not be eligible for any re-election. No person who has succeeded as President and has served as such for more than four years shall be qualified for election to the same office at any time.
33. It shall be the sole judge of all contests relating to the election, returns, and qualifications of the President or Vice-President, and may promulgate its rules for the purpose.
A. Congress
B. Supreme Court
C. Electoral Tribunal
D. Congress
Answer : B
The Supreme Court, sitting en banc, shall be the sole judge of all contests relating to the election, returns, and qualifications of the President or Vice-President, and may promulgate its rules for the purpose.
The returns of every election for President and Vice-President, duly certified by the board of canvassers of each province or city, shall be transmitted to the Congress, directed to the President of the Senate. Upon receipt of the certificates of canvass, the President of the Senate shall, not later than thirty days after the day of the election, open all the certificates in the presence of the Senate and the House of Representatives in joint public session, and the Congress, upon determination of the authenticity and due execution thereof in the manner provided by law, canvass the votes.
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34. As a rule, the Congress has the sole power to declare the existence of a state of war and may authorize the President to carry out the function for a period not exceeding 60 days which the Congress has the power to revoke or extend upon the initiative of the President, just like what happens now in Mindanao.
Who has the power to review the factual basis of the proclamation of Martial Law, suspension of the writ of habeas corpus or its extension?
A. Supreme Court
B. Congress
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Senate
Answer: A
The Supreme Court may review, in an appropriate proceeding filed by any citizen, the sufficiency of the factual basis of the proclamation of martial law or the suspension of the privilege of the writ of habeas corpus or the extension thereof, and must promulgate its decision thereon within thirty days from its filing.
35. Which of the following is NOT true about a state of Martial Law?
A. A state of martial law does not suspend the operation of the Constitution
B. It does not supplant the functioning of the civil courts or legislative assemblies, nor authorize the conferment of jurisdiction on military courts and agencies over civilians where civil courts are able to function
C. The suspension of the privilege of the writ of habeas corpus shall apply only to persons judicially charged for rebellion or offenses inherent in, or directly connected with, invasion.
D. The privilege of the writ of habeas corpus is automatically suspended upon the declaration of martial law
Answer: D
A state of martial law does not suspend the operation of the Constitution, nor supplant the functioning of the civil courts or legislative assemblies, nor authorize the conferment of jurisdiction on military courts and agencies over civilians where civil courts are able to function, nor automatically suspend the privilege of the writ of habeas corpus.
The suspension of the privilege of the writ of habeas corpus shall apply only to persons judicially charged for rebellion or offenses inherent in, or directly connected with, invasion.
36. With regards to the treaties or international agreements entered into by the President, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The President may sign treaties and international agreements without being validated by the Senate.
B. Treaties/ international agreements are valid only if it is concurred by the Senate.
C. Supreme Court decides on cases involving constitutionality of treaties/international agreements
D. No treaty or international agreement shall be valid and effective unless concurred in by at least two-thirds of all the Members of the Senate.
Answer: A
Art. VIII Section 21. No treaty or international agreement shall be valid and effective unless concurred in by at least two-thirds of all the Members of the Senate.
Art. VIII, Section 3.
(2) All cases involving the constitutionality of a treaty, international or executive agreement, or law, which shall be heard by the Supreme Court en banc, and all other cases which under the Rules of Court are required to be heard en banc, including those involving the constitutionality, application, or operation of presidential decrees, proclamations, orders, instructions, ordinances, and other regulations, shall be decided with the concurrence of a majority of the Members who actually took part in the deliberations on the issues in the case and voted thereon.
37. A document which a losing party files with the Supreme Court asking the Supreme Court to review the decision of a lower court
A. Petition for Writ of Certiorari
B. Writ of Prohibition
C. Writ of Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto
Answer: A
1 - A writ of certiorari orders a lower court to deliver its record in a case so that the higher court may review it.
2. A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing something the law prohibits. ... This writ is often issued by a superior court to the lower court asking it not to proceed with a case which does not fall under its jurisdiction.
3. A (writ of ) mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court to any government, subordinate court, corporation, or public authority, to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do, and which is in the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one of a statutory duty.
4. Quo warranto is a legal proceeding during which an individual's right to hold an office or governmental privilege is challenged.
38. It is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right or power (or "franchise") they claim to hold.
A. Petition for Writ of Certiorari
B. Writ of Prohibition
C. Writ of Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto
Answer D
Petition for Writ of Certiorari. (informally called "Cert Petition.") A document which a losing party files with the Supreme Court asking the Supreme Court to review the decision of a lower court.
Writ of Prohibition. An order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it. A writ of prohibition is an extraordinary remedy that is rarely used.
The writ of mandamus can also be issued in a mandamus proceeding, independent of any judicial proceeding. Generally, such a petition for a mandamus order is made to compel a judicial or government officer to perform a duty owed to the petitioner.
Quo warranto (Medieval Latin for "by what warrant?") is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right or power (or "franchise") they claim to hold.
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39. What provision of law does the 1987 Constitution give highest priority?
A. Education, Science and Technology, Culture and Arts, Culture and Sport Education
B. Social Justice and Human Rights
C. Bill of Rights
D. National Economy and Patrimony
Answer: B
Article XIII, Section 1. The Congress shall give highest priority to the enactment of measures that protect and enhance the right of all the people to human dignity, reduce social, economic, and political inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by equitably diffusing wealth and political power for the common good.
40. At the option of the parents expressed in writing, how shall religion be taught in schools?
A. It shall be taught within regular class hours by instructors designated by the religious authorities.
B. It shall be taught outside class hours by religious authorities paid by the government.
C. It shall be taught within class hours by religious authorities paid by the government
D. It shall be taught outside class hours by instructors designated by the religious authorities.
Answer: A
Art XIV, Sec. 3(3) At the option expressed in writing by the parents or guardians, religion shall be allowed to be taught to their children or wards in public elementary and high schools within the regular class hours by instructors designated or approved by the religious authorities of the religion to which the children or wards belong, without additional cost to the Government.
41. What remedy is available to any person whose right to life, liberty and security is violated or threatened with violation by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or of a private individual or entity?
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus
D. Bill of Rights
C. Writ of Amparo
D. Writ of Habeas Data
Answer : C
The writ of Amparo is a remedy available to any person whose right to privacy in life, liberty or security is violated or threatened by an unlawful act of any official or employee, or of a private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or storing of data or information
42. What is the constitutional safeguard which prevents one branch of the government from becoming powerful and intervene in the affairs of another branch?
A. Checks and Balances
B. Impeachment
C. Ombudsman
D. Separation of Powers
Answer: A
Under the system of checks and balances, one department is given certain powers by which it may definitely restrain the others from exceeding constitutional authority. It may object or resist any encroachment upon its authority, or it may question, if necessary any act or acts which unlawfully interferes with its sphere of jurisdiction and authority. (Suarez, 2005).
43. Which of the following is a legislative check in the executive branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts unconstitutional
C. Determining whether there has been grave abuse of discretion
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: A
Congress may override the veto power of the President. As a consequence, the bill disapproved by the President will still become a law.
1987 Const. ,Art. VII Section 27. (1) Every bill passed by the Congress shall, before it becomes a law, be presented to the President. If he approves the same he shall sign it; otherwise, he shall veto it and return the same with his objections to the House where it originated, which shall enter the objections at large in its Journal and proceed to reconsider it. If, after such reconsideration, two-thirds of all the Members of such House shall agree to pass the bill, it shall be sent, together with the objections, to the other House by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and if approved by two-thirds of all the Members of that House, it shall become a law. In all such cases, the votes of each House shall be determined by yeas or nays, and the names of the Members voting for or against shall be entered in its Journal. The President shall communicate his veto of any bill to the House where it originated within thirty days after the date of receipt thereof, otherwise, it shall become a law as if he had signed it.
44. Which of the following is an Executive check in the Judicial branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts unconstitutional
C. Determining whether there has been grave abuse of discretion
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: D
Section 19. Except in cases of impeachment, or as otherwise provided in this Constitution, the President may grant reprieves, commutations, and pardons, and remit fines and forfeitures, after conviction by final judgment. He shall also have the power to grant amnesty with the concurrence of a majority of all the Members of the Congress
45. Which of the following is a Judicial check in the executive branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts unconstitutional
C. Power to impeach
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: B
1987 Const., Article VIII, Section 4.
(2) All cases involving the constitutionality of a treaty, international or executive agreement, or law, which shall be heard by the Supreme Court en banc, and all other cases which under the Rules of Court are required to be heard en banc, including those involving the constitutionality, application, or operation of presidential decrees, proclamations, orders, instructions, ordinances, and other regulations, shall be decided with the concurrence of a majority of the Members who actually took part in the deliberations on the issues in the case and voted thereon.
46. Which of the following is not true of a bill becoming a law?
A. A bill becomes a law if approved by the President
B. A bill becomes a law if the Congress overrides the veto power of the President by 2/3 vote
C. A bill becomes a law after a lapse of 30 days and the President does not communicate his veto
D. A bill becomes a law after a lapse of 90 days
Answer : D. There is no 90-days requirement in the passage of a bill into law here in the Philippines.
Article VII, Section 27. (1) Every bill passed by the Congress shall, before it becomes a law, be presented to the President. If he approves the same he shall sign it; otherwise, he shall veto it and return the same with his objections to the House where it originated, which shall enter the objections at large in its Journal and proceed to reconsider it. If, after such reconsideration, two-thirds of all the Members of such House shall agree to pass the bill, it shall be sent, together with the objections,to the other House by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and if approved by two-thirds of all the Members of that House, it shall become a law. In all such cases, the votes of each House shall be determined by yeas or nays, and the names of the Members voting for or against shall be entered in its Journal. The President shall communicate his veto of any bill to the House where it originated within thirty days after the date of receipt thereof, otherwise, it shall become a law as if he had signed it.
47. A type of Cooperatives the primary purpose of which is to procure and distribute commodities to members and non-members
A. Credit Cooperative
B. Consumers Cooperative
C. Producers Cooperative
D. Marketing Cooperative
Answer : B
"(a) Credit Cooperative is one that promotes and undertakes savings and lending services among its members. It generates a common pool of funds in order to provide financial assistance to its members for productive and provident purposes;
"(b) Consumers Cooperative is one of the primary purpose of which is to procure and distribute commodities to members and non-members;
"(c) Producers Cooperative is one that undertakes joint production whether agricultural or industrial. It is formed and operated by its members to undertake the production and processing of raw materials or goods produced by its members into finished or processed products for sale by the cooperative to its members and non-members. Any end product or its derivative arising from the raw materials produced by its members, sold in the name and for the account of the cooperative, shall be deemed a product of the cooperative and its members;
"(d) Marketing Cooperative is one which engages in the supply of production inputs to members and markets their products;
48. It is the earliest period of Earth's history, set before the current Phanerozoic Eon.
A. Cambrian
B. Precambrian
C. Archean
D. Hadean
Answer: B
The Precambrian (or Pre-Cambrian, sometimes abbreviated pЄ, or Cryptozoic) is the earliest period of Earth's history, set before the current Phanerozoic Eon. The Precambrian is so named because it preceded the Cambrian, the first period of the Phanerozoic eon, which is named after Cambria, the Latinised name for Wales, where rocks from this age were first studied. The Precambrian accounts for 88% of the Earth's geologic time.
The Phanerozoic is the current eon on Earth, which started approximately 542 million years ago. It consists of three eras: The Paleozoic (old life), Mesozoic (middle life), and Cenozoic (old life), and is the time when multi-cellular life greatly diversified into almost all the organisms known today
49. It is the process of removing or reducing state regulations, typically in the economic sphere.
A. Economic liberalization
B. Deregulation
C. Privatization
D. Restriction
Answer B
Deregulation is the process of removing or reducing state regulations, typically in the economic sphere. It is the undoing or repeal of governmental regulation of the economy. It became common in advanced industrial economies in the 1970s and 1980s, as a result of new trends in economic thinking about the inefficiencies of government regulation, and the risk that regulatory agencies would be controlled by the regulated industry to its benefit, and thereby hurt consumers and the wider economy.
The stated rationale for deregulation is often that fewer and simpler regulations will lead to a raised level of competitiveness, therefore higher productivity, more efficiency and lower prices overall.
50. It is the lessening of government regulations and restrictions in an economy in exchange for greater participation by private entities.
A. Economic liberalization
B. Deregulation
C. Privatization
D. Restriction
Answer: A
Economic liberalization is the lessening of government regulations and restrictions in an economy in exchange for greater participation by private entities; the doctrine is associated with classical liberalism. Thus, liberalization in short is "the removal of controls" in order to encourage economic development.
Economic liberalization is often associated with privatization, which is the process of transferring ownership or outsourcing of a business, enterprise, agency, public service or public property from the public sector to the private sector.
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51. A sector of the economy that is neither taxed, nor monitored by any form of government.
A. Voluntary sector
B. Private sector
C. Informal sector
D. International Sector
Answer: C
The informal sector, informal economy, or grey economy is the part of an economy that is neither taxed nor monitored by any form of government. Unlike the formal economy, activities of the informal economy are not included in a country's gross national product (GNP) or gross domestic product (GDP).
52. It is the duty of social activity undertaken by organizations that are not-for-profit and non-governmental.
A. Voluntary sector
B. Informal Sector
C. Private Sector
D. International sectore
Answer: A
The informal sector, informal economy, or grey economy is the part of an economy that is neither taxed, nor monitored by any form of government. Unlike the formal economy, activities of the informal economy are not included in the gross national product (GNP) and gross domestic product (GDP) of a country.
The private sector is the part of the economy, sometimes referred to as the citizen sector, which is run by private individuals or groups, usually as a means of enterprise for profit, and is not controlled by the State (areas of the economy controlled by the state being referred to as the public sector).
The private sector encompasses all for-profit businesses that are not owned or operated by the government. Companies and corporations that are government run are part of what is known as the public sector, while charities and other nonprofit organizations are part of the voluntary sector.
The voluntary sector or community sector (also non-profit sector or "not-for-profit" sector) is the duty of social activity undertaken by organizations that are not-for-profit and non-governmental. This sector is also called the third sector, in contrast to the public sector and the private sector.
The international sector includes exports (X), which add to to the value of aggregate demand, and are an injection into the circular flow of income, and imports (M), which reduce aggregate demand, and are a withdrawal from the circular flow
53. It is a logical fallacy in which an argument is rebutted by attacking the character, motive, or other attribute of the person making the argument, or persons associated with the argument, rather than attacking the substance of the argument itself
A. Argumentum ad baculum
B. Ad hominen
C. Argumentum misericordiam
D. Argumentum ad verecundiam
Answer : B
Ad hominem (Latin for "to the man" or "to the person", short for argumentum ad hominem, is a logical fallacy in which an argument is rebutted by attacking the character, motive, or other attribute of the person making the argument, or persons associated with the argument, rather than attacking the substance of the argument itself
54. It is the fallacy committed when one appeals to force or the threat of force to bring about the acceptance of a conclusion
A. Argumentum ad baculum
B. Ad hominen
C. Argumentum misericordiam
D. Argumentum ad verecundiam
Answer:A
Ad hominem (Latin for "to the man" or "to the person", short for argumentum ad hominem, is a logical fallacy in which an argument is rebutted by attacking the character, motive, or other attribute of the person making the argument, or persons associated with the argument, rather than attacking the substance of the argument itself
Argumentum ad baculum (Latin for "argument to the cudgel" or "appeal to the stick") is the fallacy committed when one appeals to force or the threat of force to bring about the acceptance of a conclusion.
An appeal to pity (also called argumentum ad misericordiam, the sob story, or the Galileo argument) is a fallacy in which someone tries to win support for an argument or idea by exploiting his or her opponent's feelings of pity or guilt. It is a specific kind of appeal to emotion.
An argumentum ad verecundiam is an argument based on authority. The Latin means "appeal to reverence". (Here, authorities mean people presumed to be experts, as opposed to people holding power over others--ScottJohnson)
-also called an appeal to authority, is a common type of argument which can be fallacious, such as when an authority is cited on a topic outside their area of expertise or when the authority cited is not a true expert.
In argumentation theory, an argumentum ad populum (Latin for "appeal to the people") is a fallacious argument that concludes that a proposition is true because many or most people believe it: "If many believe so, it is so." (Bandwagon fallacy)
The Bandwagon is a fallacy in which a threat of rejection by one's peers (or peer pressure) is substituted for evidence in an "argument."
55. It was an agreement between Portugal and Spain to divide ownership rights of New World territory between the countries. The treaty was originally agreed to by both countries on June 7, 1494, and went into effect in September of that year.
A. Treaty of Versailles
B. Treaty of Paris
C. Treaty of Tordesillas
D. Treaty of New York
Answer: C
The Treaty of Tordesillas signed at Tordesillas on June 7, 1494, and authenticated at Setúbal, Portugal, divided the newly discovered lands outside Europe between Portugal and the Crown of Castile, along a meridian 370 leagues[note 1] west of the Cape Verde islands, off the west coast of Africa. This line of demarcation was about halfway between the Cape Verde islands (already Portuguese) and the islands entered by Christopher Columbus on his first voyage (claimed for Castile and León), named in the treaty as Cipangu and Antilia (Cuba and Hispaniola).
The Treaty of Versailles (French: Traité de Versailles) was the most important of the peace treaties that brought World War I to an end. The Treaty ended the state of war between Germany and the Allied Powers.
The Treaty of Paris of 1898 was an agreement made in 1898 that involved Spain relinquishing nearly all of the remaining Spanish Empire, especially Cuba, and ceding Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines to the United States.
The Treaty of New York was a treaty signed in 1790 between leaders of the Creek people and Henry Knox, then Secretary of War for the United States, under president George Washington.
56. He is best known for his claim that “human nature is good.”
A. Mencius
B. Lao Tsu
C. Confucius
D. Buddha
Answer : A
Mencius (fourth century BCE) was a Confucian philosopher. Often referred to as the "Second Sage" of Confucianism (meaning second in importance only to Confucius himself), Mencius is best known for his claim that “human nature is good.
Lao Tzu, ( 570 B.C. - 490 B.C.) traditionally known as the Founder of the naturalistic, philosophical "Way" known as Taoism. He was born in the province of Honan and has probably exerted more influence over Chinese thinking than any other person except Confucius.
He is best known as the author of the Tao-Te-Ching, the work which exemplifies his thought.
Confucius (551?-479? BCE), according to Chinese tradition, was a thinker, political figure, educator, and founder of the Ru School of Chinese thought.[1] His teachings, preserved in the Lunyu or Analects, form the foundation of much of subsequent Chinese speculation on the education and comportment of the ideal man, how such an individual should live his life and interact with others, and the forms of society and government in which he should participate.
Buddha expressed his philosophy when he said: "I teach only two things, O disciples, the nature of suffering and the cessation of suffering." Buddha taught the famous "Four Noble Truths" and "Eightfold Path," which allows people to achieve enlightenment.
57. Who was responsible for the original lyrics of the Philippine National Anthem?
A. Julian Felipe
B. Jose Palma
C. Paz Benitez
D. Felipe Padilla de Leon
Answer B
58. Whose version of the “Lupang Hinirang” do we use today?
A. Julian Felipe
B. Jose Palma
C. Paz Benitez
D. Felipe Padilla de Leon
Answer: D
Its music was composed in 1898 by Julian Felipe, and the lyrics were adapted from the Spanish poem Filipinas, written by José Palma in 1899.
The first translation was written around that time by the renowned poet Paz Marquez Benitez of the University of the Philippines.
During the term of President Ramon Magsaysay, Education Secretary Gregorio Hernández formed a commission to revise the lyrics. On 26 May 1956, the Pilipino translation Lupang Hinirang was sung for the first time. Minor revisions were made in the 1960s, and it is this version by Felipe Padilla de León which is presently used. The Filipino[a] lyrics have been confirmed by Republic Act No. 8491 (the "Flag and Heraldic Code of the Philippines") in 1998, abandoning use of both the Spanish and English versions
59. Mr. Reyes was teaching something on mores, folkways, customs and beliefs in his Social Studies class. What was his lesson about?
A. material culture
B. tangible culture
C. non-material culture
D. hereditary culture
Answer: C
Material culture is the physical evidence of a culture in the objects and architecture they make, or have made. The term tends to be relevant only in archeological and anthropological studies, but it specifically means all material evidence which can be attributed to culture, past or present.
Nonmaterial culture includes creations and abstract ideas that are not embodied in physical objects. In other words, any intangible products created and sharedbetween the members of a culture over time are aspects of their nonmaterial culture. Social roles, rules, ethics, and beliefs are just some examples
60. The totality of a group of producer’s supply.
A. aggregate demand C. aggregate supply
B. supply schedule D. demand schedule
Answer: C
Aggregate supply is the totality of producer’s supply.
Aggregate demand is the totality of consumer’s demand
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61. A market with large number of sellers and buyers and buyers trading identical products where buyers and sellers are price takers.
A. monopoly
B. pure competition
C. oligopoly
D. monopolistic
Answer : B
Pure competition is a term that describes a market that has a broad range of competitors who are selling the same products. It is often referred to as perfect competition. Here are some characteristics that define a pure competition. ... The price of products is determined solely by what consumers are willing to pay. Oligopoly on the other hand is a state of limited competition.
62. The business practice of selling the same good or service at different prices to different customers.
A. price discrimination
C. customer’s discrimination
B. customer’s discrimination
D. customer’s maximization
Answer A
* Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that charges customers different prices for the same product or service. In pure price discrimination, the seller charges each customer the maximum price that he is willing to pay.
* Customer discrimination is a manifestation of personal prejudice of consumers such that they prefer to trade with individuals belonging to a certain group over others. A prevalent fact states that customers do not like being served by minorities or women.
63. It is a measure used in economics to show the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good or service to a change in its price, ceteris paribus.
A. Price inelasticity of demand
B. Price elasticity of demand
C. Income inelasticity of demand
D. Cross Elasticity of demand
Answer: B
The overriding factor in determining PED is the willingness and ability of consumers after a price change to postpone immediate consumption decisions concerning the good and to search for substitutes ("wait and look"). A number of factors can thus affect the elasticity of demand for a good. Responsiveness is referred to as the elasticity.
64. Which of the following statements represents normative, rather than positive analysis?
A. Since the supply of gems is limited, their price is very high.
B. People should not be allowed to purchase bodily organs, because it allows the rich access to a life-saving procedure that the poor may not have access to.
C. Since the supply of water is very large, the price of water is very low.
D. The demand for organ transplants currently far exceeds the supply.
Answer; B
This is a normative statement that is based on an assumption of equity (we want rich and poor to have equal access to treatment.) The others answers are positive statements that are based on facts about the supply and demand of goods in different markets.
65. What determines the price and quantity of a good in a perfectly competitive market?
A. The presence or absence of substitute goods.
B. The government.
C. The intersection of the supply and the demand curve.
D. The position of the demand curve.
Answer: C
In a perfectly competitive market, the equilibrium price and quantity sold is given by the intersection of the supply and demand curves. The position of the demand curve and the presence or absence of substitute goods are also relevant, but these answers are incomplete.
66. Assume that people enjoy eating either apples or oranges. What happens in the market for oranges when the price of apples goes up?
A. There is no change in the demand curve.
B. The demand curve shifts right.
C. The supply curve shifts left.
D. The demand curve shifts left.
Answer : B
When the price of apples increases, more people will eat oranges because they are more affordable. This causes the demand curve to shift right: at any given price point, people will consume more oranges
67. Now, assume there is natural calamity that destroys part of the orange crop. What happens to the market for oranges in this case?
A. The supply curve shifts up.
B. The demand curve shifts right.
C. The supply curve shifts down.
D. There is no shift in the demand or supply curves.
Answer: A
When part of the orange crop is destroyed, there are less oranges available at any price; the supply curve shifts left to a new equilibrium with lower quantity and higher price. An alternative way to conceptualize the change is that the cost of growing fruit, per orange sold, has now increased for the farmers; they are still paying to run their farm, but are selling fewer oranges. For each orange they now sell, they need to charge more.
68. Which of the following accurately characterize perfectly inelastic demand?
A. The demand curve is vertical.
B. The demand curve is horizontal.
C. The demand curve is vertical but does not change regardless of what happens to price.
D. Demand does not change regardless of what happens to price.
Answer: C
A vertical demand curve means that if the supply curve shifts, only the price changes; there is no change in quantity demanded.
The demand curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity demanded for a given period of time. In a typical representation, the price will appear on the left vertical axis, the quantity demanded on the horizontal axis.
The supply curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity supplied for a given period of time. In a typical representation, the price will appear on the left vertical axis, the quantity supplied on the horizontal axis.
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Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded of a particular good and a change in its price. Price elasticity of demand is a term in economics often used when discussing price sensitivity. The formula for calculating price elasticity of demand is:
Price Elasticity of Demand = % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price
If a small change in price is accompanied by a large change in quantity demanded, the product is said to be elastic (or responsive to price changes). Conversely, a product is inelastic if a large change in price is accompanied by a small amount of change in quantity demanded.
Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in price for a particular good. If the price elasticity of demand is equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic (i.e., demand does not change when price changes). Values between zero and one indicate that demand is inelastic (this occurs when the percent change in demand is less than the percent change in price). When price elasticity of demand equals one, demand is unit elastic (the percent change in demand is equal to the percent change in price). Finally, if the value is greater than one, demand is perfectly elastic (demand is affected to a greater degree by changes in price).
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Income elasticity of demand refers to the sensitivity of the quantity demanded for a certain good to a change in real income of consumers who buy this good, keeping all other things constant. The formula for calculating income elasticity of demand is the percent change in quantity demanded divided by the percent change in income. With income elasticity of demand, you can tell if a particular good represents a necessity or a luxury.
BREAKING DOWN 'Income Elasticity Of Demand'
Income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand for a particular good to changes in consumer income. The higher the income elasticity of demand in absolute terms for a particular good, the bigger consumers' response in their purchasing habits, if their real income changes. Businesses typically evaluate income elasticity of demand for their products to help predict the impact of a business cycle on product sales.
Read more: Income Elasticity Of Demand http://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/incomeelasticityofdemand.asp#ixzz4pKfw6mzR
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Key points
Elasticity can be described as elastic—or very responsive—unit elastic, or inelastic—not very responsive.
Elastic demand or supply curves indicate that the quantity demanded or supplied responds to price changes in a greater than proportional manner.
An inelastic demand or supply curve is one where a given percentage change in price will cause a smaller percentage change in quantity demanded or supplied. Describes a supply or demand curve which is relatively unresponsive to changes in price.
Unitary elasticity means that a given percentage change in price leads to an equal percentage change in quantity demanded or supplied.
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69. When do we expect to see a perfectly elastic demand curve?
A. When a good has no substitutes.
B. When there is limited supply of a good.
C. When a good has a perfect substitute.
D. When a good has many complements
Answer: C
When a good has a perfect substitute (for example, hamburgers at different fast food chains), then if there is a price increase at one store, consumers will simply switch to purchasing from another store. This results in a perfectly elastic demand curve. A good that has no substitutes will have perfectly inelastic demand. The existence of complementary goods and the nature of the supply curve do not affect the elasticity of demand.
70. A good in which the demand for it increases with demand for another good.
A. Normal good
B. Subsitute good
C. Complementary good
D. inferior good
Answer: C
A complementary good is a good whose use is related to the use of an associated or paired good. Two goods (A and B) are complementary if using more of good A requires the use of more of good B. For example, the demand for one good (printers) generates demand for the other (ink cartridges).
An inferior good is a product that has its demand increase when the relative price of another good increases. A bus pass, for example, will increase in demand when the relative price of cars increases.
Substitute goods are two goods that could be used for the same purpose
Normal goods are any items for which demand increases when income increases. Whole wheat, organic pasta noodles are an example of a normal good. Good for which demand (consumption) increases as consumer income rises, but at a rate slower than the rate of increase in income.
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70. Consuming one candy bar may satisfy a person's sweet tooth. If a second candy bar is consumed, the satisfaction of eating that second bar will be less than the satisfaction gained from eating the first. This is an example of what law?
A. Law of Supply
B. Law of Demand
C. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
D. Law of Customer Satisfaction
Answer: C. In eating the second candy bar, his satisfaction has declined because he had already increased his consumption in eating the first candy bar.
The law of diminishing marginal utility is a law of economics stating that as a person increases consumption of a product while keeping consumption of other products constant, there is a decline in the marginal utility that person derives from consuming each additional unit of that product.
71. Law of Demand states that _____
A. With the increase in price quantity increases
B. With the increase in price quantity decreases other things remaining the same.
C. Quantity does not change with any increase in price.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B
Law of demand states that other things remaining the same every increase in price causes the quantity to be decreased and vice versa.
72. While in Perfect Competition
A. Firms are price taker
B. Buyers are independent
C. Input prices are given
D. None of the above
Answer A
Since in Perfect Competition goods are homogeneous and perfect substitute for one another and there is large number of buyers and sellers, therefore , no firm has control over price.
Perfect competition is a market structure in which the following five criteria are met:
1) All firms sell an identical product;
2) All firms are price takers - they cannot control the market price of their product;
3) All firms have a relatively small market share;
4) Buyers have complete information about the product being sold and the prices charged by each firm; and
5) The industry is characterized by freedom of entry and exit. Perfect competition is sometimes referred to as "pure competition".
73. Model of Monopolistic Competition (i.e Imperfect competition) is characterized by
A. Homogeneous goods
B. Differentiated goods
C. Substitute Goods
D. All of the above
Answer: B
In monopolistic goods are differentiated and the firm faces downward sloping demand curve i.e with every increase(decrease) in price there is decrease(increase) in quantity.
Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect competition such that many producers sell products that are differentiated from one another (e.g. by branding or quality) and hence are not perfect substitutes.
74. Price discrimination is a situation when a producer
A. Charges different prices in different markets
B. Charges same price
C. Charges many prices
D. All of the above.
Answer: A
Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that charges customers different prices for the same product or service. In pure price discrimination, the seller charges each customer the maximum price that he is willing to pay.
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a competitive market?
A. There are many buyers and sellers in the market
B. The goods offered for sale are largely the same
C. Firms can freely enter or exit the market
D. Firms generate small but positive economic profits in the long run
Answer D
The concept of perfect competition applies when there are many producers and consumers in the market and no single company can influence the pricing. A perfectly competitive market has the following characteristics:
a. There are many buyers and sellers in the market.
b. Each company makes a similar product.
c. Buyers and sellers have access to perfect information about price.
d. There are no transaction costs.
e. are no barriers to entry into or exit from the market.
All goods in a perfectly competitive market are considered perfect substitutes, and the demand curve is perfectly elastic for each of the small, individual firms that participate in the market. These firms are price takers--if one firm tries to raise its price, there would be no demand for that firm's product. Consumers would buy from another firm at a lower price instead.
76. Learning experiences in the cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains
which are embedded simultaneously together in the development of the lesson.
A. ACES teaching
B. problem-based
C. discovery
D. Socratic dialogue
Answer A
The ACES teaching approach employs both the inductive as well as the deductive methods in the conduct of the lesson although the former is given more emphasis since certain principles and conditions of learning that activate the learner and make learning personal meaningful are easily achieved through the inductive method. This approach is commonly called Andragogy or the experiential process which develops through four stages: activity, analysis, abstraction and application (PRODED’s 4As).
77. A research technique in which the investigators enter to the activities of the group at the same time they study the group’s behavior is
a. Participants observation
b. A semi-structured (open-ended) Interview
c. A structured interview
d. A data discussion
Answer: A
Participant observation is one type of data collection method typically used in qualitative research. It is a widely used methodology in many disciplines, particularly cultural anthropology and (European) ethnology, less so in sociology, communication studies, human geography and social psychology.
Participant observation can only do so much for the researcher because the sole presence of the researcher in the field will influence the participants' behavior (see:observer-expectancy effect). Researchers engaging in this type of qualitative research method must be aware that participants may act differently or put up a facade that is in accordance to what they believe the researcher is studying. This is why it is important to employ rigor in any qualitative research study. A useful method of rigor to employ is member-checking or triangulation.
78. A research interview determined entirely in advance and followed rigidly is:
a. Participants observation
b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
c. A structured interview
d. A data discussion
Answer: C
A structured interview (also known as a standardized interview or a researcher-administered survey) is a quantitative research method commonly employed in survey research. The aim of this approach is to ensure that each interview is presented with exactly the same questions in the same order.
79. A research interview in which the investigators ask a list of questions, but is free to vary them or make up new ones that become important during the course interview, that is
a. Participant observation
b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview
c. Structured interview
d. A data discussion
Answer: B
A semi-structured interview is a qualitative method of inquiry that combines a pre-determined set of open questions (questions that prompt discussion) with the opportunity for the interviewer to explore particular themes or responses further.
80. A direct vote of the people on whether they accept or reject a constitution.
A. plebiscite
B. referendum
C. election
D. initiative
Answer: A
Plebiscite is the electoral process by which an initiative on the Constitution is approved or rejected by the people.
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81. It is the power of the electorate to approve or reject a legislation through an election called for the purpose. It may be of two classes.
a. plebiscite
b. referendum
c. election
d. initiative.
Answer: B
"Referendum" is the power of the electorate to approve or reject a legislation through an election called for the purpose. It may be of two classes.
82. The Philippine Development Plan 2017-2022 of President Duterte is founded on three main pillars. Which is NOT one of them?
A. Malasakit
B. Pagbabago
C. Patuloy na Pag-unlad
D. Pagsisikap
Answer: D
The Philippine Development Plan (PDP) 2017-2022 is the first medium-term plan to be anchored on a national long-term vision, or AmBisyon Natin 2040, which represents the collective vision and aspirations of Filipinos for themselves and for the country. The PDP also takes off from the Administration’s 0-10 point Socioeconomic Agenda and is informed by inputs from the cross-section of stakeholders and the general public.
First is Malasakit, which aims to regain people’s trust in public institutions and cultivate trust among fellow Filipinos. Strategies under Malasakit include promoting awareness of anti-corruption measures, improving the productivity of the public sector, implementing regulatory reforms, increasing access to legal aid, pursuing corrections reform, and promoting culture-sensitive governance and development.
Second is Pagbabago, or inequality-reducing transformation through increasing opportunities for growth of output and income.
“Opportunities in agriculture will be expanded. We will increase our presence in the global market, and we will streamline bureaucratic processes for both local and foreign businesses,” said NEDA Undersecretary Rosemarie G. Edillon, who presented to the NEDA Board the PDP strategies.
Also under this pillar, “we will pursue strategies such as achieving quality and accessible basic education for all, enhancing disaster risk reduction and management (DRRM) mechanisms, and adopting universal social protection,” added Undersecretary Edillon.
Third, Patuloy na Pag-unlad concentrates on increasing potential growth through sustaining and accelerating economic growth, “this will be done by maximizing the demographic dividend and vigorously advancing science, technology and innovation.”
83. Rising 4000 meters above sea level, it is sometimes called the Rooftop of the world.
A. Mt. Katanglad
B. Mt. Ararat
C. Mt. Himalayas
D. Pamir Knot
Answer: D
The Pamir Mountains, or the Pamirs, are a mountain range in Central Asia at the junction of the Himalayas with the Tian Shan, Karakoram, Kunlun, Hindu Kush, Suleman and Hindu Raj ranges. They are among the world’s highest mountain
84. Which is a legislative check on the President?
A. Rejection of appointment/s by the President
B. Prescription of the qualifications of the President
C. Prescription of qualifications of judges of lower courts
D. Inquiry into the wisdom of any pardon given by the President
Answer: A
Section 18. There shall be a Commission on Appointments consisting of the President of the Senate, as ex officio Chairman, twelve Senators, and twelve Members of the House of Representatives, elected by each House on the basis of proportional representation from the political parties and parties or organizations registered under the party-list system represented therein. The chairman of the Commission shall not vote, except in case of a tie. The Commission shall act on all appointments submitted to it within thirty session days of the Congress from their submission. The Commission shall rule by a majority vote of all the Members.
85. Which is the fourth largest island in the country, often visited by typhoons and with a very rugged interior?
A. Negros
B. Bohol
C. Samar
D. Leyte
Answer: A
The Biggest Islands Of The Philippines
Rank Island Area
1 Luzon 42,458 square miles
2 Mindanao 37,657 square miles
3 Samar 5,185 square miles
4 Negros 5,139 square miles
5 Palawan 4,706 square miles
6 Panay ,637 square miles
7 Mindoro 4,082 square miles
8 Leyte 2,845 square miles
9 Cebu 1,725 square miles
10 Bohol 1,475 square miles
86. Where are the great forests of Russia found?
a. Tundra
b. Taiga
c. Steppe
d. Desert
Answer: B
Taiga is the Russian word for forest and is the largest biome in the world. It stretches over Eurasia and North America. The taiga is located near the top of the world, just below the tundra biome. The winters in the taiga are very cold with only snowfall.
87. The percentage change in quantity demanded of one good compared to the percentage
change in the price of a related good.
A. coefficient elasticity
B. income elasticity of demand
C. cross elasticity of demand
D. point elasticity
Answer: C
In economics, the cross elasticity of demand or cross-price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded for a good to a change in the price of another good, ceteris paribus.
88. The most densely populated areas of China are found in what area?
a. Near industrial areas
b. In the river valleys
c. in the western mountains
d. on the southern plateau
Answer: B
The Han majority is densely settled in the eastern half of the country—also called "inner China"—along the coastal areas, on the great plains, in the river valleys.
89. An agreement signed by President Duterte on February 28, 2017 dealing with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020.
A. Paris Agreement of Climate Change
B. European Agreement on Climate Change
C. Green Revolution
D. Kyoto Protocol
Answer: A
The Paris Agreement (French: Accord de Paris), Paris climate accord or Paris climate agreement, is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) dealing with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020. The language of the agreement was negotiated by representatives of 196 parties at the 21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC in Paris and adopted by consensus on 12 December 2015.[3][4] As of August 2017, 195 UNFCCC members have signed the agreement, 159 of which have ratified it.
90. The ASEAN Summit is a semiannual meeting held by the member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations in relation to economic, and cultural development of Southeast Asian countries. On April 26-29, 2017, the 30th ASEAN Summit was held in the Philippines at the __________________.
A. Philippine Arena
B. Philippine International Convention Center
C. World Trade Center, Metro Manila
D. Quezon Convention Center
Answer: B
April 26–29 –2017: The 30th ASEAN Summit was held at the Philippine International Convention Center in Pasay
91. President Rodrigo Duterte has officially renamed Benham Rise to “Philippine Rise,” in an apparent bid to assert the country’s sovereignty over the resource-rich waters amid alleged incursions by Chinese ships by virtue of what law?
A. Executive Order No. 26
B. Proclamation No. 124
C. Proclamation No. 126
D. Executive Order No. 25
Answer : D
President Rodrigo Duterte has officially renamed Benham Rise to “Philippine Rise,” in an apparent bid to assert the country’s sovereignty over the resource-rich waters amid alleged incursions by Chinese ships.
Duterte signed Executive Order No. 25 renaming the 13-million hectare area undersea landmass off Aurora. ISigned May 16, 2017)
President Rodrigo Duterte signed Executive Order No. 26, that ordered a nationwide smoking ban
92. What is legal basis of the Martial Law in Mindanao?
A. Proclamation No. 124
B. Proclamation No. 1081
C. Proclamation No. 216
D. Proclamation No. 27
Answer: C
May 23, 2017 – President Rodrigo Duterte signed Proclamation No. 216 declaring a 60-day martial law in Mindanao following clashes between government forces and the Maute group in Marawi
July 22 - In a special joint session requested by President Rodrigo Duterte, the Congress of the Philippines voted 261-18 to extend the martial law in Mindanao until December 31, 2017.[
President Duterte issued Proclamation No. 124 declaring the month of January as the National Bible Month.
93. It is the Senate committee tasked to investigate alleged wrongdoings of the government, its officials, and its attached agencies, including government owned and controlled corporations, in aid of legislation, that is, the primary purpose is the suggestion of new laws, or proposals of amendments to existing laws.
A. Justice and Human Rights Committee
B. Local Government Committee
C. Blue Ribbon Committee
D. Rules Committee
Answer : C
The Committee on Accountability of Public Officers and Investigations of the Senate of the Philippines, or more popularly known as the Blue Ribbon Committee, is the Senate committee tasked to investigate alleged wrongdoings of the government, its officials, and its attached agencies, including government owned and controlled corporations, in aid of legislation, that is, the primary purpose is the suggestion of new laws, or proposals of amendments to existing laws
94. It is the country's first micro-satellite and the first satellite to be built and designed by Filipinos.
A. Cygnus
B. Diwata-1
C. Skylab
D. Telstar
Answer: B
Diwata-1 was launched in March 23, 2016 to the International Space Station (ISS) aboard the Cygnus spacecraft on a supply mission. Cygnus itself will be launched using the Atlas V rocket. The satellite was deployed into orbit from the ISS on April 27. Diwata-1 is the country's first micro-satellite and the first satellite to be built and designed by Filipinos.
The Cygnus spacecraft is an American automated cargo spacecraft developed by Orbital ATK as part of NASA's Commercial Orbital Transportation Services (COTS) developmental program.
95. They have direct influence on the person’s attitude or behavior.
A. perception
B. belief
C. budget line
D. reference group
Answer: D
Reference group: any person or group of people who significantly influences an individual’s behavior Eg. Individuals (Celebrities, Athletes, or Political leaders) Groups of individuals with similarities (Musical groups or Sports teams.
96. She is the first recognized actress as one of the 2nd Ani ng Dangal awardees by the National Commission for Culture and the Arts.
A. Lea Salonga
B. Nora Aunor
C. Jacklyn Jose
D. Gina Pareno
Answer: D
97. A revenge tale shot in black and white by director Lav Diaz, wins the top Golden Lion prize at the Venice Film Festival.
Answer: Ang Babaeng Humayo
The Woman Who Left (Filipino: Ang Babaeng Humayo) is a 2016 Philippine drama film shot in black-and-white, written, produced, edited, and directed by Lav Diaz. It was selected to compete in the main competition section at the 73rd Venice International Film Festival where it won the Golden Lion.[2][3] This was the first film of Charo Santos-Concio who returned to acting after she stepped down as President and CEO of ABS-CBN Corporation.
98. President Benigno Aquino III signed Executive Order 183 that created the Negros Island Region to improve the delivery of public services in Negros Occidental and Negros Oriental, which forms part of the new region.
On August 7, 2018 President Rodrigo Duterte signed Executive Order No. 38, revoking EO 183 signed by then President Benigno "Noynoy" Aquino on May 29, 2015 that formed the new region, composed of Negros Oriental which was then part of Central Visayas (Region VII) and Negros Occidental of Western Visayas (Region VI).
These two provinces just adjacent each other will again be part of separate administrative regions.
"The provinces of Negros Occidental and Negros Oriental shall revert to Region VI and Region VII, respectively," EO 183 read.
99. The 8 Millennium Development Goals (United Nations)
1. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Reduce by half the production of people living on less than a dollar a day
Reduce by half the proportion of people who suffer from hunger
2. Achieve universal primary education
Ensure that all boys and girls complete a full course of primary schooling
3. Promote gender equality
Eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education preferably by 2005, and at all levels by 2015
4. Reduce child mortality
Reduce by two thirds the mortality rate among children under five
5. Improve women’s reproductive health
Reduce by three quarters the maternal mortality ratio
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
Halt and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS
Halt and begin to reverse the incidence of malaria and other major diseases
7. Ensure environmental sustainability
Integrate the principles of sustainable development into country policies and programmes; reverse loss of environmental resources
Reduce by half the proportion of people without sustainable access to safe drinking water
Achieve significant improvement in lives of at least 100 million slum-dwellers by 2020
8. Develop a global partnership for development
Develop further an open trading and financial system, that is rule-based, predictable and non-discriminatory. Includes a commitment to good governance, development and poverty reduction – nationally and internationally
Address the least developed countries’ special needs. This includes tariff-and quota-free access for their exports; enhanced debt relief for heavily indebted poor countries; cancellation of official bilateral debt; and more generous official development assistance for countries committed to poverty reduction
Address the special needs of landlocked and small island developing States
100. TAXATION
• It is an inherent power of the state to impose and collect revenues to defray the necessary expenses of the government.
• It is compulsory contribution imposed by a public authority irrespective of the amount of services rendered to the payer in return.
• It is compulsory level on private individuals and organization by the government to raise revenue to finance expenditure on public goods and services.
Purpose of Taxation
• To collect revenue for the government
• To redistribute income
• To combat inflation
• To correct an adverse balance of payment
• To check consumption of goods which are considered undesirable
• To protect local infant industries
• To influence population trend
• To improve unfavorable terms of trade
• To reallocate resources to create a sense of identity
Sources and Origin of Taxation
• The Constitution
• Statutes or Presidential Degrees
• Bureau of Internal Revenue regulations
• Judicial Decision
• Provincial, Municipal and Barrio Ordinances
• Observance of International Agreement
• Administrative Ruling and Opinions
Classification of Tax System
• Progressive Income Tax – the Higher the income the higher the tax rate.
• Proportional Tax – The tax rate is constant and unaffected by the level of income.
• Regressive Tax – The higher the income the lower the tax rate.
Classification of Taxes
• As to the subject matter – Personal Property, Capitation and Poll Tax; Property Tax; Excise Tax
• As to who bears the burden – Direct Tax and Indirect Tax
• As to determination of the amount – Specific and Ad valorem
• As to purpose – General and Specific
• As to Scope – National and Local
Types of Taxes
• Direct Taxes
• The burden cannot be shifted to the third party
• Direct taxes are based on income and wealth
• In most cases, direct taxes are progressive in nature
• Direct taxes are compulsory in nature
• Examples: income tax, residence tax, real state, immigration tax, estate/gift/inheritance tax.
• Indirect Taxes
• The tax burden can be shifted to the third party
• Indirect taxes are based on expenditure and consumption
• All indirect taxes are regressive in nature
• Indirect taxes are optional in the sense that they can be avoided
• Examples: sales tax, import tax, VAT/EVAT
Characteristics of a Sound Tax System
• Efficiency – must generated revenue greater than the amount of money the government must spend to collect taxes.
• Equity – individual and groups belonging to the same income bracket must be taxed equally while belonging to different income groups must be taxed differently.
• Convenience – to set up measures and procedures that will make it more convenient for taxpayers to pay.
• Stability – tax system must not be too often or it will encourage tax payers to withhold tax payment until a more preferred system is put in place
GOOD LUCK
